Ophthalmology 38

A 45-year-old male with a 10-year history of type 1 diabetes mellitus presents for his annual dilated eye examination. He reports that his vision has been slightly blurry over the last few months. Funduscopic examination reveals multiple microaneurysms, several dot-and-blot hemorrhages, and hard exudates in all four quadrants. Neovascularization is not visualized. There is notable thickening of the macula with associated hard exudates.

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient’s ocular condition?

  • Intravitreal vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) inhibitor
  • Observation with follow-up in one year
  • Panretinal photocoagulation
  • Pars plana vitrectomy
  • Topical corticosteroid drops

Question Details