Ophthalmology 37

A 62-year-old male with a 15-year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension presents for a routine follow-up. He reports no changes in his vision and denies eye pain or redness. His most recent hemoglobin A1c was 8.4%. On funduscopic examination, the physician notes several small, fluffy, white-to-gray lesions with indistinct margins located in the nerve fiber layer of the retina, primarily around the vascular arches. There are no cherry-red spots or significant vitreous hemorrhage noted.

Which of the following is the most likely underlying pathophysiology of these retinal findings?

  • Accumulation of lipid-laden macrophages
  • Deposition of calcium salts in the Bowman layer
  • Ischemia leading to impaired axoplasmic flow
  • Neovascularization due to vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)
  • Proliferation of glial cells in the vitreous base

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