Ophthalmology 20

A 58-year-old man with a 15-year history of poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus presents for a routine eye examination. He denies eye pain but reports gradually worsening vision over the past year. Funduscopic examination reveals microaneurysms, dot-and-blot hemorrhages, and hard exudates. No neovascularization is seen.

Which of the following is the most likely pathophysiologic mechanism responsible for this patient’s retinal findings?

  • Breakdown of the blood-retinal barrier due to pericyte loss
  • Immune-mediated destruction of retinal ganglion cells
  • Ischemic necrosis of the optic nerve head
  • Neovascularization driven by vascular endothelial growth factor
  • Obstruction of venous outflow from the retina

Question Details