Ophthalmology 19

A 62-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden, painless loss of vision in his right eye. He describes seeing “dark floaters” and “cobwebs” that progressed over several hours. He denies eye pain, redness, or trauma. He has a long-standing history of type 2 diabetes mellitus. Visual acuity is markedly reduced in the right eye. Funduscopic examination of the right eye is limited due to poor visualization of the retina.

Which of the following is the most likely underlying mechanism responsible for this patient’s condition?

  • Bleeding from fragile neovascular vessels
  • Embolic occlusion of the central retinal artery
  • Inflammatory infiltration of the uveal tract
  • Retinal detachment due to vitreous traction
  • Thrombosis of the central retinal vein

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