Step 2

Ob-Gyn 7

A 62-year-old G0P0 woman comes to the clinic due to a two-week history of light vaginal spotting. She underwent menopause at age 51 and has not had any vaginal bleeding until now. She has a medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Vital signs are within normal limits, and body mass index (BMI) is 34 kg/m2. Pelvic examination shows no visible lesions on the cervix or vagina. A transvaginal ultrasound shows an endometrial stripe thickness of 7 mm.

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

  • A) Combined oral contraceptive therapy
  • B) Endometrial biopsy
  • C) Hysterectomy
  • D) Reassurance and observation
  • E) Repeat ultrasound in 3 to 6 months

Author(s)

Ted O'Connell

Editor(s)

Dr. Raj Dasgupta

Last updated

Jan 27, 2026