Step 2

Obstetrics 6

A 27-year-old gravida 2 para 1 woman presents to the office for a prenatal visit at 36 weeks’ gestation accompanied by her husband and their son. Her current pregnancy has been uncomplicated except for asymptomatic group B Streptococcus (GBS) bacteriuria at 11 weeks’ gestation that was successfully treated with antibiotics. She denies any fever, dysuria or urge incontinence. Her previous pregnancy was an uncomplicated vaginal delivery delivered at 39 weeks’ gestation. Her first child is RhD-negative. Past medical history is significant for asthma which is well controlled with albuterol as needed. Her husband’s blood type is AB-. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows a uterus that is consistent with a 36-week gestation.

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?

  • A) Administration of intrapartum penicillin G now
  • B) Administration of intrapartum penicillin to the newborn after delivty
  • C) Administraton of Rho(D) immune globulin to prevent alloimmunization
  • D) GBS rectovaginal swab
  • E) Indirect Coombs test

Author(s)

Fatima Zohra Khamissi

Editor(s)

Dr. Ted O'Connell

Last updated

Jan 12, 2025

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