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Cardiovascular 47

A 69-year-old man is admitted to the cardiac intensive care unit after an anterior ST-elevation myocardial infarction. Coronary angiography demonstrates a proximal left anterior descending artery occlusion, and he undergoes successful percutaneous coronary intervention. His initial hospital course is uncomplicated. Eight hours later, he develops sudden lightheadedness, nausea, and confusion. He denies recurrent chest pain. His medications include aspirin, ticagrelor, atorvastatin, and intravenous heparin. Metoprolol has not yet been started. Temperature is 36.6°C (97.9°F), blood pressure is 76/44 mm Hg, pulse is 28/min, respiratory rate is 20/min, and oxygen saturation is 95% on room air. On physical examination, he appears pale and diaphoretic. Jugular venous pressure is mildly elevated, and the extremities are cool with delayed capillary refill. The lungs are clear. ECG shows regular P waves at a rate of 88/min and regular wide QRS complexes at a rate of 28/min. There is no consistent relationship between the P waves and QRS complexes.

Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate management?

  • Administer intravenous atropine and observe for a sustained response
  • Begin transcutaneous cardiac pacing
  • Implant a permanent pacemaker without temporary stabilization
  • Initiate an intravenous diltiazem infusion
  • Perform synchronized electrical cardioversion

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