Step 2

Pharmacology 25

A 68-year-old man presents to the physician for routine follow up. He has a history of non-valvular atrial fibrillation and hypertensio. He currently takes lisinopril and metoprolol. After a discussion of the stroke risk associated with atrial fibrillation, the discuss the risks and benefits of anticoagulation. The physician recommends apixaban.

Which of the following best describes the primary mechanism of action of this medication?

  • Binding to antithrombin III to accelerate the inactivation of Factor Xa
  • Direct reversible inhibition of the active site of Factor Xa
  • Indirect inhibition of thrombin (Factor IIa) via an antithrombin-dependent mechanism
  • Irreversible inhibition of the vitamin K epoxide reductase enzyme
  • Selective, direct inhibition of the active site of thrombin (Factor IIa)

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