A 24-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with concern about a right breast lump which she noticed two months ago. It is non-painful, and she denies constitutional symptoms. She has no chronic medical conditions except for generalized anxiety disorder, which is managed with escitalopram. Her family history is significant for colon cancer in her father at age 32. There is no family history of breast cancer, Lynch syndrome, or Li-Fraumeni syndrome. Physical examination is significant for a discrete 1.5 cm breast mass in the right upper quadrant of her right breast.
Which of the following is the best next step in management?
- A) Fine needle aspiration of the lesion
- B) Initiation of tamoxifen
- C) Mammography
- D) Magnetic resonance imaging of the chest
- E) Ultrasonography of the lesion
Dr. Ted O'Connell