Step 2

Hem-Onc 39

A 62-year-old man with a history of hypertension and long-standing osteoarthritis is admitted to the hospital with a deep vein thrombosis of the left lower extremity. He is started on a continuous intravenous unfractionated heparin infusion. On admission (day 1), his platelet count is 190,000/μL. On day 6 of hospitalization, his platelet count is found to be 80,000/μL. He is asymptomatic, and his physical examination is notable only for mild swelling of the left leg and a small area of skin necrosis at a recent subcutaneous injection site.

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

  • Discontinue heparin and initiate a warfarin loading dose
  • Discontinue heparin and initiate an argatroban infusion
  • Discontinue heparin and transfuse one unit of apheresis platelets
  • Order a platelet factor 4 (PF4) ELISA and continue heparin pending results
  • Continue heparin and add aspirin to the regimen

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