ENT 22

A 72-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a severe nosebleed that has lasted for two hours. He denies any recent trauma, easy bruising, or bleeding from any other sites. He has a history of hypertension and valvular atrial fibrillation that are treated with lisinopril, metoprolol, and warfarin. Despite 20 minutes of continuous pressure and the application of oxymetazoline-soaked pledgets, brisk bleeding continues from the right naris. Blood is also seen dripping down the posterior oropharynx. A complete blood count is normal, and the international normalized ration (INR) is 2.7.

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

  • Immediate arterial ligation in the operating room
  • Nasal packing posteriorly
  • Oral vitamin K and fresh frozen plasma
  • Silver nitrate cautery
  • Topical thrombin application

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