Step 2

Endocrinology 16

A 52-year-old man comes to the office due to a 1-year history of erectile dysfunction and decreased libido. He also has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and peripheral neuropathy. He takes metformin, glipizide, and gabapentin. The patient does not use tobacco or alcohol. He is married with one child from a previous marriage. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows small testes bilaterally with otherwise normal secondary sexual characteristics. Laboratory results are as follows:

  • Hemoglobin A1C: 5.8%
  • Serum creatinine: 1.1 mg/dL
  • Alanine aminotransferase (SGPT): 21 U/L
  • Ferritin: 1200 ng/mL (normal: 15-150 ng/mL)
  • Transferrin saturation: 85% (normal: 20-50%)
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
  • A) Karyotype analysis
  • B) Nocturnal polysomnography
  • C) Phlebotomy therapy
  • D) Scrotal ultrasound
  • E) Serum LH and FSH levels

Author(s)

Kamand Khalaj

Editor(s)

Dr. Ted O'Connell

Last updated

Oct 14, 2024

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