Step 2

Endocrinology 15

A 35-year-old man comes to the clinic due to progressive enlargement of his left breast over the past 3 months. He reports no pain, nipple discharge, or family history of breast cancer. The patient has Klinefelter syndrome and is on testosterone replacement therapy. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination reveals a 2.5-cm, firm, non-tender, subareolar mass in the left breast. The right breast is normal. The testes are atrophic, and there is sparse body hair.

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?

  • A) Check serum FSH and LH levels
  • B) Increase testosterone dose
  • C) Obtain breast imaging
  • D) Prescribe a selective estrogen receptor modulator
  • E) Provide reassurance and recommend weight loss

Author(s)

Kamand Khalaj

Editor(s)

Dr. Ted O'Connell

Last updated

Oct 14, 2024

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