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Cardiovascular 52

A 63-year-old man is brought to the emergency department because of abrupt-onset severe chest pain that began 40 minutes ago while he was lifting a heavy box. He describes the pain as tearing and states that it radiates between his shoulder blades. He has also developed numbness and weakness of his left leg. His medical history includes poorly controlled hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and tobacco use disorder. He takes amlodipine inconsistently. He does not use cocaine or other stimulants. Temperature is 36.7°C (98.1°F), blood pressure is 208/116 mm Hg in the right arm and 172/94 mm Hg in the left arm, pulse is 112/min, and respiratory rate is 22/min. Oxygen saturation is 97% on room air. On physical examination, he appears pale, diaphoretic, and distressed. The right radial pulse is diminished compared with the left. Cardiac examination reveals a new high-pitched early diastolic murmur along the left sternal border. The left foot is cool, and the left dorsalis pedis pulse is absent. ECG shows sinus tachycardia without ischemic ST-segment changes. High-sensitivity troponin is normal. Intravenous esmolol is initiated, reducing the pulse to 62/min and the systolic blood pressure to 118 mm Hg. CT angiography demonstrates an intimal flap beginning in the ascending aorta and extending through the aortic arch into the descending thoracic and abdominal aorta. The dissection involves the origin of the left renal artery and extends into the left common iliac artery.

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

  • Emergent open surgical repair
  • Intravenous nitroprusside before beta blockade
  • Medical therapy with an oral beta blocker alone
  • Thoracic endovascular aortic repair
  • Thrombolytic therapy

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