Step 2

Cardiovascular 36

A 71-year-old man presents to the emergency department because of worsening shortness of breath and palpitations for the past 2 days. He reports increasing fatigue, orthopnea, and decreased exercise tolerance. He denies chest pain. His medical history is significant for ischemic cardiomyopathy with a left ventricular ejection fraction of 30%, hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and paroxysmal atrial fibrillation. Current medications include sacubitril-valsartan, metoprolol succinate, spironolactone, empagliflozin, furosemide, and apixaban. Temperature is 36.9°C (98.4°F), blood pressure is 118/72 mm Hg, pulse is 148/min and irregularly irregular, respiratory rate is 24/min, and oxygen saturation is 94% on room air. Physical examination reveals mild respiratory distress. Jugular venous pressure is elevated. Bibasilar crackles are present. There is 1+ bilateral lower-extremity edema.

Laboratory studies show the following:

  • Creatinine: 1.1 mg/dL

  • Potassium: 4.3 mEq/L

  • BNP: Elevated

  • High-sensitivity troponin: Negative

ECG demonstrates atrial fibrillation with a ventricular rate of 150/min. No acute ischemic changes are present. Chest radiography reveals mild pulmonary vascular congestion.

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

  • Administer intravenous diltiazem
  • Administer intravenous metoprolol
  • Immediate synchronized cardioversion
  • Increase outpatient furosemide dosage and discharge home
  • Initiate flecainide therapy

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