Step 2

Cardiovascular 28

A 72-year-old woman is hospitalized after an anterior ST-elevation myocardial infarction. She underwent successful percutaneous coronary intervention to the left anterior descending artery and initially improved. Her medications include aspirin, ticagrelor, atorvastatin, metoprolol, and lisinopril. On hospital day 4, she develops sudden-onset shortness of breath and profound fatigue. She denies recurrent chest pain. Temperature is 36.8°C (98.2°F), blood pressure is 86/54 mm Hg, pulse is 118/min, respiratory rate is 28/min, and oxygen saturation is 91% on room air. Physical examination demonstrates cool extremities and elevated jugular venous pressure. Cardiac auscultation reveals tachycardia and a new harsh holosystolic murmur best heard at the left lower sternal border. A palpable thrill is present over the precordium. Bibasilar crackles are noted on lung examination. ECG demonstrates persistent Q waves in leads V1-V4 without new ST-segment elevations. Troponin levels are lower than on admission. Right-heart catheterization demonstrates a significant increase in oxygen saturation between the right atrium and right ventricle.

Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this patient’s deterioration?

  • Acute rupture of the interventricular septum causing a left-to-right shunt
  • Acute rupture of the left ventricular free wall causing cardiac tamponade
  • Acute rupture of the posteromedial papillary muscle causing severe mitral regurgitation
  • Reinfarction due to acute coronary stent thrombosis
  • Ventricular aneurysm formation with mural thrombus

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