A 41-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with concern about unilateral testicular enlargement noted last week by his sexual partner. He feels well, has an unremarkable past medical history, and does not take any medications. On physical examination, his right testicle appears homogeneously enlarged and is nontender to palpation. Laboratory studies indicate elevated levels of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) and placental alkaline phosphatase (PLAP). Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is within normal limits.
Which of the following reflects the most likely histological appearance of this patient’s right testis?
- A) Crowded cells with areas of hemorrhage and necrosis
- B) Hyalinized stroma with psammoma bodies
- C) Large cells with a “fried egg” appearance
- D) Large cells with eosinophilic crystals
- E) Nests of transitional-like epithelium