Step 2

Renal 2

A 67-year-old woman presents to the physician’s office for a health maintenance visit and is noted to have an elevated blood pressure reading. The patient is doing well and is without symptoms or complaints. She has a history of achalasia which was successfully treated with a Heller myotomy with partial fundoplication and also has osteoporosis. She is currently being treated with a yearly intravenous infusion of zoledronic acid and also takes a daily calcium and vitamin D supplement. The patient is a retired registered nurse and states that in the past 6 months, two blood pressure measurements done in the health care setting averaged above 150/90 mmHg. However, during that same time period, blood pressure measurements obtained at home averaged less than 130/80 mmHg. She has no other pertinent personal, social, or family history. She is afebrile with a blood pressure of 150/92 mmHg, heart rate of 70 beats/min, respirations of 14/min, and oxygen saturation of 98% on room air. Body mass index (BMI) is 19 kg/m2. The physical examination, including ophthalmic examination, is normal.

Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient?

  • A) Begin hydrochlorothiazide
  • B) Collect 24-hour urine metanephrines and catecholamines
  • C) Obtain a basic metabolic panel and start lisinopril
  • D) Order magnetic resonance angiography (MRA) of the renal arteries
  • E) Perform ambulatory blood pressure monitoring

Author(s)

Dr. Raj Dasgupta

Editor(s)

Dr. Raj Dasgupta

Last updated

Oct 20, 2024

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