Step 2

Renal 11

A 24-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a complaint of one day of painless dark urination. He reports mild bilateral flank pain and denies joint pain and abdominal pain. He has no past medical history but notes that he did have a sore throat a few days ago that resolved without any treatment. His only medication is a multivitamin and 5 grams of creatine daily. His father passed away from urothelial bladder cancer two years ago, and his mother has type 2 diabetes mellitus. He does not drink alcohol or smoke cigarettes. Vital signs include a temperature of 37.1° C (98.6° F), blood pressure 145/90 mmHg, pulse 90 beats/min, and respirations 17/min. Physical examination shows mild pitting edema in his bilateral ankles. Complete blood count is normal. Serum creatinine is 1.5 mg/dL which is elevated from 1.0 mg/dL at his last primary care visit 2 months ago. Serum C3 and C4 are within normal limits. A urinalysis shows the following:

  • Blood: 2+
  • Protein: 1+
  • Nitrites: Negative
  • Leukocyte Esterase: Negative
  • WBC: Negative
  • WBC Casts: Negative
  • RBC Casts: Many
  • Glucose: Negative
  • Ketones: Negative

The urine protein-to-creatinine ratio is 1.8 g/day. Which of the following pharmacotherapies is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

  • A) Cisplatin
  • B) Penicillin
  • C) Sparsentan
  • D) Tamsulosin
  • E) Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole

Author(s)

Adam Plotkin

Editor(s)

Dr. Ted O'Connell

Last updated

Nov 24, 2024

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