Step 2

Psychiatry 15

A 36-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician due to fatigue, poor sleep, and feelings of worthlessness for the past 2 months. She reports a loss of interest in activities she previously enjoyed and has experienced unintentional weight loss. She denies suicidal ideation, hallucinations, or delusions. She denies any history of manic episodes. She has no significant past medical history and takes no medications. She does not drink alcohol, smoke cigarettes, or use illicit substances. Family history is notable for depression in her mother. Physical examination is unremarkable. A PHQ-9 is administeed and reveals a score of 14. A complete blood count (CBC) and thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level are within normal limits.

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

  • A) Administer a Patient Health Questionnaire-2 (PHQ-2)
  • B) Prescribe aripiprazole
  • C) Prescribe chlorpromazine
  • D) Prescribe escitalopram
  • E) Recommend hospitalization

Author(s)

Ryan O'Connell

Editor(s)

Dr. Ted O'Connell

Last updated

Jun 03, 2025

Our Other Products: