Step 2

Psychiatry 1

A 44-year-old woman sees her primary care physician for worsening depressive symptoms. She was diagnosed with major depression by her psychiatrist, which was previously well controlled with sertraline (Zoloft), 50 mg daily. On exam, VS are WNL, however, the patient has a flat affect and becomes tearful during the clinical interview. You administer the Patient Health Questionnaire-9 (PHQ-9) to re-evaluate her depression and she scores a 16, with a previously documented score of 8 in her chart.

Which of the following is the most important next step in management?

  • A) Add aripiprazole (Abilify)
  • B) Add brexpiprazole (Rexulti)
  • C) Increase sertraline
  • D) Add lithium
  • E) Inquire about suicidal ideation


Dr. Raj Dasgupta


Dr. Raj Dasgupta

Last updated

Sep 24, 2022

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