A 38-year-old woman gravida 3, para 2 at 28 weeks’ gestation presents to the clinic for a prenatal visit. She is concerned about swelling of her hands and feet which began 2 days ago. She denies shortness of breath, dizziness, or loss of consciousness. Past medical history is significant for two prior pregnancies that were uncomplicated. She takes a prenatal vitamin daily. She does not drink alcohol or use drugs but did smoke half a pack of cigarettes daily and stopped when she found out she was pregnant. Family history is significant for a cesarean section delivery in her mother at age 26 years for eclampsia and diagnosis of hypertension at age 47 years. Vital signs are temperature 37.1° C (98.6° F), blood pressure 159/100 mmHg, pulse 95 beats/min, and respirations 18/min. Pelvic examination shows a uterus consistent with 28-week gestation. Fetal heart rate is at 152 beats/min. Labs were done and results are as follows:
- Hematocrit: 35%
- Leukocyte count: 10,000/mm3
- Platelets: 158,000/mm3
- Creatinine: 1.0 mg/dL
- Aspartate aminotransferase (AST): 20 U/L
- Alanine aminotransferase (ALT): 18 U/L
- Urinalysis
- Specific Gravity: 1.012
- RBC: 1/hpf
- WBC: 0/hpf
- Protein: 4+
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- A) Admission to the intensive care unit
- B) Cesarean delivery
- C) Hydrochlorothiazide
- D) Induction of labor
- E) Labetalol
Author(s)
Jessica Ann Jorge
Editor(s)
Dr. Ted O'Connell
Last updated
Feb 11, 2024