A 42-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of fever, abdominal discomfort, and fatigue. She has a history of membranous nephropathy, and her current medications include prednisone and enalapril. She has no history of cirrhosis. She does not smoke cigarettes or use alcohol. Vital signs are temperature 101.8°F (38.8°C), blood pressure 102/64 mmHg, heart rate 110 beats/min, and respirations18/min. On physical examination, there is moderate abdominal distension but no rebound tenderness or guarding. Her lower extremities are edematous. Laboratory results are as follows:
- Serum albumin: 2.0 g/dL
- Urine protein: 8.5 g/24 hours
- WBC count: 14,000/mm3
- Blood cultures: Pending
A diagnostic paracentesis is performed, revealing:
- Ascitic fluid appearance: Cloudy
- Polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMN) count: 350 cells/μL
- Gram stain: No organisms identified
Which of the follwoing is the most appropriate next step in management?
- A) Begin oral ciprofloxacin as prophylaxis
- B) Increase the dose of prednisone
- C) Monitor the patient closely with serial abdominal examinations
- D) Perform an abdominal CT scan to evaluate for intra-abdominal pathology
- E) Start ceftriaxone intravenously
Author(s)
Adam Plotkin
Editor(s)
Dr. Ted O'Connell
Last updated
Dec 28, 2024