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Pathology 56

A 26-year-old man is evaluated in the hospital 6 hours after undergoing open reduction and internal fixation for a closed right tibial shaft fracture sustained in a motorcycle accident. He reports escalating pain in the right leg that is deep, severe, and not relieved by intravenous morphine. He also notes numbness over the top of the foot. Vital signs are temperature 37.2°C (99.0°F), blood pressure 126/78 mmHg, pulse 104/min, and respirations 18/min. On physical examination, the right leg is swollen and tense to palpation. Pain is significantly worsened by passive dorsiflexion of the foot. Sensation is decreased over the dorsum of the foot, and active toe extension is weak. Pedal pulses are palpable and symmetric bilaterally.

Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

  • A) Acute compartment syndrome
  • B) Deep vein thrombosis
  • C) Fat embolism syndrome
  • D) Necrotizing fasciitis
  • E) Postoperative wound infection

Author(s)

Ryan O'Connell

Editor(s)

Dr. Ted O'Connell

Last updated

Jul 03, 2025

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