A 30-year-old woman presents to the clinic due to abdominal pain and bloody diarrhea for the past 2 weeks. Past medical history is significant for previous episodes similar to this one. The patient denies any fever, nausea, or vomiting. She had been prescribed budesonide in the past for her previous episodes. She does not drink alcohol, use drugs, or smoke cigarettes. Her vital signs are within normal limits. On physical examination, the patient has lower left quadrant tenderness to palpation without guarding or rebound. The patient is prescribed budesonide and mesalamine.
Which of the following explains the pathophysiology behind the patient’s most likely condition?
- A) Bacterial exotoxin-mediated condition
- B) IgE-mediated condition
- C) Immune complex-mediated condition
- D) T helper cell type 1-mediated condition
- E) T helper cell type 2 mediated condition
Dr. Ted O'Connell