Step 1

Pathology 1

A 48-year-old man presents to his physician complaining of large irregular white patches of skin around his mouth, nose, eyes, and genitalia which have been evolving for the past several years. He reports that he has not seen a physician since he immigrated from Mexico 10 years ago out of fear of being deported. He felt that he had to come in today, because he is fearful that his condition is cancerous. He has no known past medical history and does not take any medications. Physical examination reveals areas of complete depigmentation in the areas of concern to the patient.

Which of the following is the most accurate statement about the pathophysiology of his condition?

  • A) He has autoimmune destruction of melanocytes, and his condition does not carry an increased risk of skin cancer
  • B) He has a decreased number of melanocytes with normal melanin production, and his condition carries an increased risk of skin cancer
  • C) He has a normal melanocyte number with decreased melanin production, and his condition carries an increased risk of skin cancer
  • D) He has damaged melanocytes from degradation of lipids by a yeast-like fungus, and his condition does not carry an increased risk of skin cancer
  • E) He has superficial spreading melanoma and should begin treatment as soon as possible

Authors

Dr. Ted O'Connell

Editor

Dr. Ted O'Connell