Step 1

Neurology 1

A 48-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her husband who is concerned with her lack of speech. He reports that she had been acting and speaking normally last night, but this morning did not respond to his conversation with her. Past medical history is significant for hypertension which is treated with hydrochlorothiazide. Vital signs are within normal limits. On physical examination, the patient is able to follow commands but is unable to speak.

A lesion in which of the following areas is the most likely cause of this patient's presenting symptom?

  • A) Arcuate fasciculus
  • B) Cuneus
  • C) Inferior frontal gyrus
  • D) Lingual gyrus
  • E) Superior temporal gyrus


Alison Kohn


Dr. Ted O'Connell

Last updated

Sep 08, 2022


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